* is the inverse of / when ((x*y)/y) = x. However (y/(x*y)) = 1/x. That is, the inverse of a (not commutative and not unary) operation depends on whether you place its result as the first or second argument.
If (y/(x ? y)) = x (where ? is unknown operation), a ? b = b / a. So the second inverse of division is division?
Well, I think you explained it quite well in your preceding post: (multiplication by c) is the inverse of (division by c), provided that c is not 0.
Multiplication is a function taking two arguments. It's not injective ( (1/2,2)->1 and also (1/3,3)->1 ), so we better not speak of inverses*.
Multiplication by c is a function taking one argument. It is injective for c not equal to zero, so we speak of inverses.
*In general it is wise to avoid the term "inverse function". Let f(x):=x+1. Question: is the inverse f^{-1} (0) equal to -1, or is it equal to {-1} (the one element set containing -1)?
Answer: provided f is bijective, both are valid mathematical definitions. There is no established standard on which is better. What is meant by a particular author depends on preference.
Corollary: avoid using the word "inverse function" when you write mathematical texts. Similarly, avoid the use of f^{-1}(x). Under all circumstances you are better off saying
f(x):=x+1
g(y):=y-1
f(g(y))=y
g(f(x))=x
Oops I think I wrote a bunch of crap.
Wikipedia gives a definition of inverse function: f:X->Y has an inverse g if and only if (g f) is the identity on X and (f g) is the identity on Y.
So, the function (multiplication by c) is invertible if c is not zero.
The function multiplication (taking two arguments) is not invertible.
[Edit:] As far as the question,
what is an inverse operation?
- I don't think that "inverse operation" is a used mathematical term. Feel free to define it as you please :)
According to the axioms of set theory, for a ring to be a division ring, the set of numbers {xn}, where xn * a = 1 for some a(a is an element of the ring) must be the set of all non-zero units of the ring. [A ring is a set R that is closed under both addition and multiplication.]
The trivial set, {0}, satisfies the requirements to be called a ring, but doesn't meet the additional requirement to be classified as a division ring. That means no dividing by zero...
@Gaminic: An infinite amount of nothing is just nothing, and nothing can't go into nothing, by the above.
I once thought that division by 0 should equal infinity. I guess I figured that since division by a fraction was the same as multiplying by the reciprocal, and the smaller the fraction the greater the quotient, thus since 0 is infinitely small, division by it should yield an infinitely great quotient.
Also:
Tition wrote:
Division is the inverse operation to multiplication, not the inverse function to multiplication.
Those would be one and the same if we were thinking declaratively ;D