if there any difference between this two?

[scout51]

If there any difference in the answer if we place and external parenthensis? or 1 and 2 are the same?


1 - (bla > bla) && (bla < bla)
2 - ((bla > bla) && (bla < bla))

thanks

[Albatross]

They're the same UNLESS there is something before or after those statements, in which case they might not be. :)

-Albatross

[scout51]

Not really, it was just to make sure about the syntax..

Thank your very much