please wait
Subsequence product !!! NMNMX - NO MINIMUM NO MAXIMUM
Jul 13, 2018 at 4:06pm
@invincible200 what is your approach for finding number times for each index
Jul 13, 2018 at 7:50pm
@utk911 yes i am pretty sure....test cases for subtask 1 must be weak
Last edited on Jul 13, 2018 at 7:50pm
Jul 13, 2018 at 7:59pm
@blackmamba
What is logic to reduce tle in no strings attached.
I have done following thing.
1. Change every element from a to z , then after changing checking how many elements are greater than it in succeeding array..
This make me to score 30 only...
What is logic to reduce tle in no strings attached.
I have done following thing.
1. Change every element from a to z , then after changing checking how many elements are greater than it in succeeding array..
This make me to score 30 only...
Jul 13, 2018 at 8:07pm
.@coder
Ur approach is correct to handle large nCr use dp..
I scored 100 using same...
Ur approach is correct to handle large nCr use dp..
I scored 100 using same...
Jul 13, 2018 at 8:10pm
@coder yup that was the tricky part.
try a little harder.
try printing different variables in your code to debug your code..
try a little harder.
try printing different variables in your code to debug your code..
Jul 13, 2018 at 8:14pm
ask ur queries in the NSA thread...i am out of messaging limit so cant help there
Jul 14, 2018 at 4:11am
@decode
for(d = 1; d < n-1; d++)
{
result = (result%m * power(arr[d], c[arr[d]])%m)%m;
}
printf("%lld\n",result);
this is somewhat how used the multiplication and get 100......
for(d = 1; d < n-1; d++)
{
result = (result%m * power(arr[d], c[arr[d]])%m)%m;
}
printf("%lld\n",result);
this is somewhat how used the multiplication and get 100......
Jul 14, 2018 at 4:50am
see:
we know that
a^(m-n) = (a^m)/(a^n)
here 1/(a^n) can be written as inverse of a^n.
so , a^(m-n) = (a^m)*inverse( (a^n)).
hope this helps many of u.
we know that
a^(m-n) = (a^m)/(a^n)
here 1/(a^n) can be written as inverse of a^n.
so , a^(m-n) = (a^m)*inverse( (a^n)).
hope this helps many of u.
Jul 14, 2018 at 6:55am
@blackmamba
Check your PM i have sent you my code for nmnmx
Check your PM i have sent you my code for nmnmx
Jul 14, 2018 at 7:24am
@chelpme because he ncr part goes in power!!! by euler totient (a^b)%m=(a^(b%(m-1)))%m...so that is wht take modulo with m-1 for nCr part
Jul 14, 2018 at 7:35am
@all guyz dont contact me through PM....i have posted all the necessary details to solve NSA and NMNMX problem in the respective forums....go through them and i wont be of any help more than that